News

4A0-M05 Exam Sample Questions Answers

Question No 1:

Which of the following describes the 2N model for VM redundancy?

A. There is one active VM and one standby VM that takes over if the active VM fails.
B. Thera are N active VMs and a pool of standby VMs that can take over if one or more active VMs fail.
C. There are N active VMs, each one paired with a standby VM that takes over if its active VM fails.
D. There are 2N active VMs deployed to support a service that needs N active VMs, with extra capacity in case one or more VMs fail.

Answer: C

Question No 2:

Which of the following about CMG CUPS architecture is FALSE?

A. CMG user plane VNF implements the SGW-U, PGW-U, and GGSN-U functionalities
B. A 7750 SR MG communicates with a CMG control plane VNF over Sx interface
C. CMG control plane VNF can be deployed in LB-mode or LB-less mode
D. CMG user plane VNF can be deployed in LB-mode or LB-less mode

Answer: C

Question No 3:

Which of the following statements regarding the health check for a specific CMM VM is FALSE?

A. It is performed by CMM periodically
B. It can be manually executed using a CLI command “cmm_monitor”
C. It can be executed by ssh to each individual CMM VM from the NECC VM
D. If a failure occurs, additional details can be displayed using the verbos (-v) or very verbos (-vv) flag

Answer: C

Question No 4:

Which of the following logical interfaces is used between the CMG and the PDN?

A. Gn
B. SGi
C. S5
D. S1-U

Answer: A

Question No 5:

Which of the following statements regarding CMM call processing is TRUE?

A. Call processing services are deployed in active-standby mode and resources are fully duplicated
B. Call processing services are deployed in pure stateless mode and UE contexts are only stored in an external database
C. Call processing services are deployed in hybrid mode and UE contexts are stored both locally and in an external database
D. Call processing services are deployed in all-active mode and UE contexts are only stored locally

Answer: A

News

2V0-41.19 Exam Sample Questions Answers

Question No 1:

How is the intra-tier transit link connection created between SR and DR for a Tier-0 Gateway?

A. Manually create a gateway interface and mark it as transit.
B. Automatically created when DR is created.
C. Automatically created when SR is initialized.
D. Manually create external uplink interface and mark it as transit.

Answer: C

Question No 2:

Which CLI command should be executed on a KVM hypervisor to retrieve the VM interface UUID?

A. virsh list-interface
B. virsh get-interface
C. virsh dumpxml | grep interfaceid
D. virsh show | grep interfaceid

Answer: A

Question No 3:

How many IPs are required when deploying a highly available NSX Management Cluster with VIP in a production environment?

A. 3
B. 5
C. 4
D. 6

Answer: A

Question No 4:

Which two statements describe the characteristics of the Services Router (SR) component of a Tier-0 Gateway? (Choose two.)

A. Edge cluster is mandatory for SR to be created.
B. SR can exist on both hypervisor transport nodes and Edge transport nodes.
C. SR is automatically created when stateful services are enabled.
D. Edge transport nodes are required for SR to be created.
E. SR can be created from the NSX Advanced Networking & Security tab in the UI.

Answer: A E

Question No 5:

What are two valid options when configuring the scope of a distributed firewall rule? (Choose two.)

A. Group
B. Tier-1 Gateway
C. Segment Port
D. Segment
E. DFW

Answer: A E

News

SY0-501 Exam Sample Questions Answers

Question No 1:

Due to issues with building keys being duplicated and distributed, a security administrator wishes to change to a different security control regarding a restricted area.

The goal is to provide access based upon facial recognition. Which of the following will address this requirement?

A. Set up mantraps to avoid tailgating of approved users.

B. Place a guard at the entrance to approve access.

C. Install a fingerprint scanner at the entrance.

D. Implement proximity readers to scan users’ badges.

Answer: B

Question No 2:

A security administrator has concerns regarding employees saving data on company provided mobile devices. Which of the following would BEST address the administrator’s concerns?

A. Install a mobile application that tracks read and write functions on the device.

B. Create a company policy prohibiting the use of mobile devices for personal use.

C. Enable GPS functionality to track the location of the mobile devices.

D. Configure the devices so that removable media use is disabled.

Answer: D

Question No 3:

Identifying residual risk is MOST important to which of the following concepts?

A. Risk deterrence

B. Risk acceptance

C. Risk mitigation

D. Risk avoidance

Answer: B

Question No 4:

The information security technician wants to ensure security controls are deployed and functioning as intended to be able to maintain an appropriate security posture. Which of the following security techniques is MOST appropriate to do this?

A. Log audits

B. System hardening

C. Use IPS/IDS

D. Continuous security monitoring

Answer: D

Question No 5:

A small company can only afford to buy an all-in-one wireless router/switch. The company has 3 wireless BYOD users and 2 web servers without wireless access. Which of the following should the company configure to protect the servers from the user devices? (Select TWO).

A. Deny incoming connections to the outside router interface.

B. Change the default HTTP port

C. Implement EAP-TLS to establish mutual authentication

D. Disable the physical switch ports

E. Create a server VLAN

F. Create an ACL to access the server

Answer: E, F